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9 comment(s). Last comment by AllWin 2017-05-13 09:13

probability

14,402 posts

Posted by probability > 2017-05-12 16:33 | Report Abuse

just use a variable 'x' for 'PFISB + POMSB' and then work it out...like sumato88 did.

'x + PMRMB 1st qtr 2016' = 130Mliion / 4.35

You will obtain the same simple results he had derived...its not rocket science.

https://klse.i3investor.com/blogs/sumato88/122548.jsp

paperplane2016

21,544 posts

Posted by paperplane2016 > 2017-05-12 17:01 | Report Abuse

if profit 400mil full year, this calculation totally underestimate

suregain

1,611 posts

Posted by suregain > 2017-05-12 17:01 | Report Abuse

means fully valued now?

probability

14,402 posts

Posted by probability > 2017-05-12 17:02 | Report Abuse

this article is written by a maths weakling

cheoky

2,819 posts

Posted by cheoky > 2017-05-12 17:11 | Report Abuse

Those who buy low need not be too precise. Let pro sifus work it out or let time tell. That is the best sitting

win_win

85 posts

Posted by win_win > 2017-05-12 17:18 | Report Abuse

the calculation in this article is misinterpreting

suregain

1,611 posts

Posted by suregain > 2017-05-12 20:16 | Report Abuse

He din mention wat is d estimated profit for 1st q 2017. He just said need to revise eps for 2017 and gave 92sen eps.. Wat is d basis??

Blacksails

762 posts

Posted by Blacksails > 2017-05-12 21:03 | Report Abuse

Amateur guess work, wtf!

AllWin

782 posts

Posted by AllWin > 2017-05-13 09:13 | Report Abuse

Save your work richDad. Should just refer to Sumato's clear and comprehensive calculations.

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